234 Practice Questions + 20 Case Studies — 4 Hour Limit
Browse the 20 clinical case studies in the dedicated section below, then drill the 234 practice questions. The clock starts on your first answer — you can pause for up to 15 minutes for a break and pick up right where you left off.
Clinical Case Studies
20 Interactive Vignettes — Click to Start
Each case presents a clinical vignette → answer selection → flip for full explanation. Includes multi-code sequencing blocks.
Showing 254 questions
Q1🔤 Medical Terminology
The prefix 'tachy-' most accurately means:
Q2🔤 Medical Terminology
The suffix '-ectomy' refers to:
Q3🔤 Medical Terminology
The combining form 'hepat/o' refers to the:
Q4🔤 Medical Terminology
A term meaning 'pertaining to around the heart' is:
Q5🔤 Medical Terminology
The suffix '-algia' means:
Q6🔤 Medical Terminology
Which term means 'surgical creation of a new opening into the colon'?
Q7🔤 Medical Terminology
The prefix 'hypo-' means:
Q8🔤 Medical Terminology
The suffix '-scopy' means:
Q9🔤 Medical Terminology
The prefix 'poly-' means:
Q10🔤 Medical Terminology
'Nephr/o' is the combining form for the:
Q11🔤 Medical Terminology
The suffix '-emia' refers to a condition of the:
Q12🔤 Medical Terminology
'Osteo-' combined with '-porosis' describes:
Q13🔤 Medical Terminology
The term 'dyspnea' means:
Q14🔤 Medical Terminology
The combining form 'hyster/o' refers to the:
Q15🫀 Anatomy
During an excision of a malignant skin lesion measuring 1.5 cm with 0.3 cm margins on each side, what size is coded?
Q16🫀 Anatomy
The innermost layer of the heart wall is the:
Q17🫀 Anatomy
Which structure connects muscle to bone?
Q18🫀 Anatomy
The first portion of the small intestine is the:
Q19🫀 Anatomy
A fracture where the bone breaks through the skin is classified as:
Q20🫀 Anatomy
The left anterior descending artery (LAD) supplies blood to the:
Q21🫀 Anatomy
Which layer of the skin contains hair follicles and sweat glands?
Q22🫀 Anatomy
Which chamber of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body?
Q23🫀 Anatomy
The functional unit of the kidney is the:
Q24🫀 Anatomy
Which term describes movement toward the midline of the body?
Q25🫀 Anatomy
The largest organ of the integumentary system is the:
Q26🫀 Anatomy
Which cranial nerve controls facial movement?
Q27🫀 Anatomy
The pleura is the membrane surrounding the:
Q28🫀 Anatomy
Synovial joints are characterized by:
Q29⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
A patient receives an office visit and a minor surgical procedure the same day. Which modifier allows billing both?
Q30⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
Medicare Part B covers which of the following?
Q31⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
Intentionally billing for a higher level of service than what was provided is called:
Q32⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
Which NCCI concept prevents billing a component code separately when a comprehensive code already includes it?
Q33⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
Place of Service (POS) code 21 indicates:
Q34⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
An ABN (Advance Beneficiary Notice) must be given to a Medicare patient when:
Q35⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
The False Claims Act primarily addresses:
Q36⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
The Stark Law primarily regulates:
Q37⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
An OIG (Office of Inspector General) work plan primarily identifies:
Q38⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
Which best describes 'unbundling' in medical billing?
Q39⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
A Recovery Audit Contractor (RAC) is primarily tasked with:
Q40⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
Which modifier is used to indicate services were provided by a resident under a teaching physician?
Q41⚖️ Compliance & Regulatory
Under HIPAA, the minimum necessary standard requires:
Q42📋 Coding Guidelines
For outpatient visits, how should a 'probable' diagnosis be reported?
Q43📋 Coding Guidelines
Which modifier indicates an E/M service on the same day as a procedure, where the E/M was significant and separately identifiable?
Q44📋 Coding Guidelines
Add-on codes (+) in CPT are:
Q45📋 Coding Guidelines
Which services are INCLUDED in the 90-day global surgical package?
Q46📋 Coding Guidelines
Modifier -57 should be appended to an E/M code when:
Q47📋 Coding Guidelines
When a parenthetical note in CPT states 'Do not report 12001 with 12004,' this means:
Q48📋 Coding Guidelines
The principal diagnosis for an inpatient stay is defined as:
Q49📋 Coding Guidelines
Modifier -52 (reduced services) should be used when:
Q50📋 Coding Guidelines
A 'separate procedure' designation in CPT means the code:
Q51📋 Coding Guidelines
Modifier -22 (increased procedural services) should be supported by:
Q52📋 Coding Guidelines
When CPT and ICD-10-CM guidelines conflict on a specific documentation issue, coders should:
Q53📋 Coding Guidelines
Modifier -78 is used to report:
Q54📋 Coding Guidelines
Modifier -58 indicates:
Q55📋 Coding Guidelines
Category III CPT codes are used to report:
Q56📋 Coding Guidelines
When a provider documents 'rule out' a condition in the outpatient setting, the coder should:
Q57📋 Coding Guidelines
The CPT Appendix A is used to look up:
Q58🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A patient with a history of breast cancer is treated for a new lung lesion determined to be metastatic. What is the correct coding sequence?
Q59🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
The 7th character 'D' on an ICD-10-CM injury code indicates:
Q60🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
An ICD-10-CM 'Excludes1' note means:
Q61🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
Which Z-code represents a patient with a personal history of colon cancer, currently cancer-free?
Q62🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
When coding COPD with acute exacerbation, which code is correct?
Q63🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A diabetic patient develops peripheral neuropathy. Per ICD-10-CM guidelines, how should this be coded?
Q64🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
The ICD-10-CM 'Excludes2' note means:
Q65🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
An inpatient hospital chart states the discharge diagnosis is 'probable pneumonia.' How should this be coded?
Q66🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
An outpatient patient is seen for 'possible UTI.' How should this be coded?
Q67🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A patient with hypertension is also diagnosed with Stage 3 CKD. How should these be coded?
Q68🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A patient is seen specifically for chemotherapy for breast cancer. The correct coding sequence is:
Q69🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A patient has an adverse effect from correctly taking their prescribed penicillin (developed a rash). The correct coding sequence is:
Q70🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A confirmed HIV-positive patient is admitted for pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). What is the principal diagnosis?
Q71🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
Septic shock is documented. What must be sequenced BEFORE the septic shock code R65.21?
Q72🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A pressure ulcer at Stage 4 is documented as now healing. What stage should be coded?
Q73🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on insulin. How is this coded?
Q74🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
Per Section III of the Official Guidelines, an abnormal lab result should be coded as an additional inpatient diagnosis when:
Q75🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
The word 'WITH' in ICD-10-CM index entries means:
Q76🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
Which ICD-10-CM chapter is dedicated to symptoms, signs, and abnormal clinical findings not classified elsewhere?
Q77🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
Laterality that is unspecified in documentation, with a code that requires it, should be coded as:
Q78🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A 'code also' note instructs the coder to:
Q79🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
Morbid obesity with a BMI of 42 in an adult should include which additional code?
Q80🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
Which is true regarding coding 'history of' versus 'current' conditions?
Q81🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
When assigning a code for asthma, the classification is primarily based on:
Q82🔍 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A patient status post kidney transplant, now with chronic kidney disease, should be coded with:
Q83💊 HCPCS Level II
HCPCS Level II J-codes are used to report:
Q84💊 HCPCS Level II
Which HCPCS modifier indicates that an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) is on file?
Q85💊 HCPCS Level II
A physician administers infliximab (Remicade) IV to a patient. The drug is coded using:
Q86💊 HCPCS Level II
HCPCS G2211 is an add-on code used with E/M services to represent:
Q87💊 HCPCS Level II
HCPCS modifier -RT means:
Q88💊 HCPCS Level II
HCPCS modifier -KX indicates:
Q89💊 HCPCS Level II
Which HCPCS code range is used for durable medical equipment?
Q90💊 HCPCS Level II
HCPCS modifier -GZ indicates:
Q91💊 HCPCS Level II
Which HCPCS code category represents temporary codes used primarily by Medicaid state agencies?
Q92💊 HCPCS Level II
Ambulance transportation services are reported using which HCPCS code series?
Q93💊 HCPCS Level II
L-codes in HCPCS Level II represent:
Q94💊 HCPCS Level II
A blood glucose test strip supplied to a diabetic patient is reported with which HCPCS category?
Q95🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
A simple wound repair of 2.5cm on the arm and a simple wound repair of 1.5cm on the same arm are performed. How is this coded?
Q96🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
Excision of a malignant lesion measuring 1.2cm with 0.2cm margins removed on all sides. What is the coded diameter?
Q97🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
Which type of wound repair requires more than layered closure and may include scar revision or extensive undermining?
Q98🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
A full-thickness skin graft (FTSG) includes:
Q99🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
Shaving of a skin lesion (11300 series) is different from excision because it:
Q100🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
For adjacent tissue transfer (local flap) coding, the area measured includes:
Q101🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
A physician removes a benign lesion from the trunk measuring 1.0cm. Which code series is correct?
Q102🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
Debridement of subcutaneous tissue on a 15 sq cm wound is coded using which CPT category?
Q103🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
Mohs micrographic surgery differs from standard excision because:
Q104🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
Destruction of a benign lesion by cryosurgery is coded from which code range?
Q105🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
Debridement of a diabetic foot ulcer down to bone is classified at which depth level?
Q106🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
Incision and drainage (I&D) of a simple abscess is reported using:
Q107🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
Skin tag removal (up to 15 lesions) is coded using:
Q108🩹 CPT: Integumentary System (10000s)
A split-thickness skin graft (STSG) includes which layers?
Q109🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
A patient has an open (compound) tibial fracture treated with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). How is this coded?
Q110🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
A shoulder arthroscopy is started but converted to an open procedure. How is this coded?
Q111🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
Which code type represents additional procedures performed during spine surgery for instrumentation?
Q112🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
Percutaneous skeletal fixation of a fracture means:
Q113🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
Which factor does NOT affect selection of a spinal fusion CPT code?
Q114🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
A knee arthroscopy for meniscectomy is performed. The surgeon also takes a diagnostic photo but performs no other therapeutic procedure. How is this coded?
Q115🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
A cast is applied to a patient's wrist after a closed distal radius fracture with manipulation. Who bills for the cast application?
Q116🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
NEW 2026 codes 27458 and 27713 describe:
Q117🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
A greenstick fracture is best described as:
Q118🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
Total knee arthroplasty is reported with CPT code:
Q119🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
Application of an external fixation device for fracture stabilization is:
Q120🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
A carpal tunnel release procedure is classified under which CPT section?
Q121🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
A rotator cuff repair performed via open technique differs from arthroscopic repair in that it:
Q122🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
Closed treatment of a fracture without manipulation means:
Q123🦴 CPT: Musculoskeletal System (20000s)
Total hip arthroplasty (replacement) is reported with CPT code:
A newborn circumcision using a clamp technique is coded using:
Q170🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
A lumbar epidural steroid injection is performed. The correct CPT code series is:
Q171🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
Paravertebral facet joint nerve blocks at three cervical levels are coded as:
Q172🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
A patient receives a spinal cord stimulator trial with temporary leads. The permanent generator is implanted 2 weeks later. How are these coded?
Q173🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
A transforaminal epidural steroid injection (TFESI) at L4-L5 is performed with fluoroscopic guidance. The injection is coded with 64483. The fluoroscopic guidance is:
Q174🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
A nerve block is performed by injecting anesthetic adjacent to the femoral nerve. This is classified as a:
Q175🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
Craniotomy for tumor excision is performed. The add-on codes for intraoperative neurophysiological monitoring would be reported by:
Q176🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
NEW 2026 code 62330 describes:
Q177🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
For 2026, revised codes 61624 and 61626 (transcatheter vascular occlusion/embolization) now:
Q178🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
A lumbar puncture (spinal tap) is performed to:
Q179🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
A craniotomy differs from a craniectomy in that:
Q180🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
Trigeminal nerve decompression (e.g., for trigeminal neuralgia) falls under which type of procedure?
Q181🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
A ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt is placed to treat:
Q182🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
Electromyography (EMG) is used to evaluate:
Q183🧠 CPT: Nervous System (60000s–64999)
A laminectomy is performed primarily to:
Q184👁️ CPT: Eye & Ear (65000s–69999)
Phacoemulsification cataract extraction with IOL insertion is coded using:
Q185👁️ CPT: Eye & Ear (65000s–69999)
An intravitreal injection of an anti-VEGF drug is performed. How is this coded?
Q186👁️ CPT: Eye & Ear (65000s–69999)
Bilateral cataract surgery is performed on separate dates. How should this be reported?
Q187👁️ CPT: Eye & Ear (65000s–69999)
A complex cataract extraction is performed requiring use of a pupil expansion ring. The correct code is:
Q188👁️ CPT: Eye & Ear (65000s–69999)
Tympanostomy (myringotomy with tube placement) in a child under anesthesia is coded using:
Q189👁️ CPT: Eye & Ear (65000s–69999)
A tympanoplasty is performed to:
Q190👁️ CPT: Eye & Ear (65000s–69999)
Trabeculectomy is a surgical treatment for:
Q191👁️ CPT: Eye & Ear (65000s–69999)
A mastoidectomy is performed to treat:
Q192👁️ CPT: Eye & Ear (65000s–69999)
Strabismus surgery is performed to correct:
Q193👁️ CPT: Eye & Ear (65000s–69999)
A pars plana vitrectomy is performed to:
Q194🔬 Radiology (70000s)
A hospital employs a radiologist who interprets imaging performed on hospital equipment. The radiologist should bill:
Q195🔬 Radiology (70000s)
When is it INCORRECT to add a separate imaging guidance code to a procedure?
Q196🔬 Radiology (70000s)
Which modifier indicates the technical component of a radiology service?
Q197🔬 Radiology (70000s)
A radiologist in private practice performs and interprets an MRI. The radiologist owns the equipment. How should this be billed?
Q198🔬 Radiology (70000s)
In 2026, new CPT codes were introduced for AI-assisted diagnostic imaging analysis. These codes are reported:
Q199🔬 Radiology (70000s)
Intensity modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) delivery is reported using:
Q200🔬 Radiology (70000s)
NEW 2026 CPT code 70471 represents:
Q201🔬 Radiology (70000s)
The 2026 radiation oncology overhaul revised codes 77402, 77407, and 77412 into three delivery levels. What else changed?
Q202🔬 Radiology (70000s)
A CT scan performed WITHOUT then WITH contrast is coded using:
Q203🔬 Radiology (70000s)
Fluoroscopic guidance for a joint injection is often:
Q204🔬 Radiology (70000s)
A DEXA (bone density) scan is coded under which section?
Q205🔬 Radiology (70000s)
Mammography codes are differentiated by:
Q206🔬 Radiology (70000s)
PET/CT combined imaging codes represent:
Q207🔬 Radiology (70000s)
Brachytherapy is a form of radiation treatment where the radioactive source is:
Q208🧪 Pathology & Laboratory (80000s)
A colon resection specimen is submitted for surgical pathology. The appropriate CPT code level is:
Q209🧪 Pathology & Laboratory (80000s)
A physician orders all components of a comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP). How should this be coded?
Q210🧪 Pathology & Laboratory (80000s)
Surgical pathology Level IV (88305) typically represents:
Q211🧪 Pathology & Laboratory (80000s)
A Pap smear is performed. The physician manually screens and interprets the results. Which code applies?
Q212🧪 Pathology & Laboratory (80000s)
A urinalysis with microscopy is ordered. The appropriate code is:
Q213🧪 Pathology & Laboratory (80000s)
A Gram stain is used to:
Q214🧪 Pathology & Laboratory (80000s)
A frozen section during surgery is used to:
Q215🧪 Pathology & Laboratory (80000s)
Immunohistochemistry (IHC) staining is primarily used to:
Q216🧪 Pathology & Laboratory (80000s)
A CBC (complete blood count) with differential evaluates:
Q217🧪 Pathology & Laboratory (80000s)
Molecular pathology codes (Tier 1/Tier 2) are used to report:
Q218💉 Medicine (90000s)
A patient receives hydration followed by a therapeutic drug infusion. What is the coding hierarchy?
Q219💉 Medicine (90000s)
An immunization is administered in the office. How many codes are needed?
Q220💉 Medicine (90000s)
A patient receives two separate IV drugs sequentially (one finishes before the next begins). The second drug is reported using:
Q221💉 Medicine (90000s)
Remote Patient Monitoring (RPM) supply code 99454 requires how many days of data collection per 30-day period to be billable?
Q222💉 Medicine (90000s)
Which code represents Remote Therapeutic Monitoring (RTM) treatment management services (minimum 20 minutes of staff time in a 30-day period)?
Q223💉 Medicine (90000s)
A pulmonary function test (PFT) measures:
Q224💉 Medicine (90000s)
Allergy testing via percutaneous (scratch) method is coded differently from:
Q225💉 Medicine (90000s)
A psychiatric diagnostic evaluation (initial) is coded using:
Q226💉 Medicine (90000s)
Cardiac rehabilitation services (with continuous ECG monitoring) are coded using:
Q227💉 Medicine (90000s)
A biofeedback session for muscle relaxation training is classified under:
Q228💉 Medicine (90000s)
Home ventilator management services are typically billed using:
Q229👨⚕️ Evaluation & Management (E/M Codes)
Under 2021 E/M guidelines, what determines the level of service for office/outpatient visits?
Q230👨⚕️ Evaluation & Management (E/M Codes)
A patient is seen for a new problem requiring additional workup (lab, imaging ordered). Under MDM, the risk level is:
Q231👨⚕️ Evaluation & Management (E/M Codes)
Which E/M code is appropriate for a new patient visit with high MDM?
Q232👨⚕️ Evaluation & Management (E/M Codes)
Modifier -57 is appended to an E/M code when:
Q233👨⚕️ Evaluation & Management (E/M Codes)
For a patient prescribed a new high-risk medication requiring intensive monitoring (e.g., warfarin), the MDM risk level is:
Q234👨⚕️ Evaluation & Management (E/M Codes)
A physician performs a 35-minute total encounter time for a new patient visit. Using time-based coding, the appropriate code is: